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Biotech / Medical : Agouron Pharmaceuticals (AGPH)

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To: margie who wrote (1976)	10/1/1997 6:31:00 PM
From: per strandberg	of 6136

margie, how do you interpret following excerpts from today's Medscape report: The researchers conclude that preliminary results suggest that most subjects failing ART therapy that includes nelfinavir can have their VL suppressed below the detection limit by a ritonavir/saquinavir-based regimen over a short term. Maintaining the suppression, however, may be challenging because of prior RTI experience. That was nelf failing followed by rit/saq. Not perfect but quite a few good results, at least for the time being. Ritonavir/Saquinavir After Breakthrough on Indinavir Failure on ritonavir/saquinavir was associated with development of the L90M mutation in 9 of 12 patients. In 2 patients with enduring success on therapy, this mutation was not seen. The study demonstrated a potent but transient response to ritonavir/saquinavir for patients who had breakthrough on RTIs plus indinavir. Because of the transience of the response this therapy cannot be recommended for indinavir salvage. An earlier switch appears to be related to more effective salvage response. Similar results were experienced when D. Batisse and colleagues from the Hospital Broussais in Paris examined effectiveness of ritonavir/saquinavir in 24 patients who failed triple drug therapy consisting of two RTIs plus indinavir (n=18) or ritonavir (n=6). Twenty-one failures were attributed to disease progression and 3 were due to adverse side effects. As far as I can understand , this is exactly what the whole discussion was all about: First nelf, then if failing, use other PIs. Comments appreciated ps

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