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Politics : Politics for Pros- moderated

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To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (297200)	3/19/2009 3:54:43 PM
From: Alan Smithee	Read Replies (3) of 793928

Doesn't this amount to a bill of attainder? Will it stand in court? It's more in the nature of an ex post facto law. "An ex post facto law or retroactive law, is a law that retroactively changes the legal consequences of acts committed or the legal status of facts and relationships that existed prior to the enactment of the law." en.wikipedia.org Seems to me changing the legal status (tax status) of payments made under contracts that predated the law's enactment fit the description. I think a good argument could be made it is unconstitutional under Art. I, Sec. 9 of the Constitution. As Robert commented, this is not a good precedent. I think our Congresscritters are out of control and need to be reined in.

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