Your post is extremely false and misleading:
>>Israel had recruited the native born Jewish community in Egypt to betray their native land and fellow citizens on behalf of Zionist intrigue.<<
You state that the entire community was recruited. Yet, the very link you cited to states:
Naturally, the eventual exposure of such an organization was not going to improve the lot of the vast majority of Egyptian Jews who wanted nothing to do with Zionism.
Yet, you say: "The Jewish community in Egypt had proven that they were willing to betray their native land, commit sabotage and murder, to further the Zionist agenda."
So, therefore what you are defending is the expulsion of an entire community that did not even believe in Zionism, for the acts of a few, which by any definition is a war crime and a crime against humanity. You also state, very plainly, that the whole community did this, when your source says the opposite.
How do you rationalize this? is this clear antisemitism--to take a source saying one thing about a Jewsih community, and to twist it around as saying someting competely different? |
