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Pastimes : MIDNIGHT BLUES CAFE
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To: E who wrote (49)10/19/1998 12:04:00 PM
From: Solon  Read Replies (1) of 99
 
And... it also blocks the analgesic effect of a placebo.

I'm sorry, E! I'm trying to get my mind around that but I obviously have some deficiency in my comprehensive abilities.

So we assume that the subject can experience some analgesic quality by altering their perception on an intrapsychic basis (provided they are assisted by the "authority" of an outside agent). Now this drug (presumably not operating through suggestion)presumably creates biochemical changes in the body that interfere with the subjects ability to lie to his/her self. I guess if we assume that the placebo effect actually involves the subject creating biochemical changes strictly through brain (read thought) activity, then I suppose we could consider that a particular drug could interfere with that part of a subject's thinking which is presumably involved in controlling the area of the nervous system which could mitigate the perception of pain.

Perhaps the placebo effect in this instance is produced by the subject somehow blocking or impeding the transmission of sensation along the neural pathways; while the drug would then be said to interfere with this interference or to impede this impedance. So the subject strives on an unconscious level to block the transmission or the reception of these nerve impulses of pain, while this drug keeps trying to keep the circuits open and operable.

Yes, I think I can picture that but I sure as hell don't understand it. Although the reverse of the placebo effect is easily observed to be very real. Convince someone they have just ingested poison (don't actually do this--its a mind experiment)...and watch their reaction!
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