Who would the Allies have signed a formal treaty with? The government of Germany was non-existent after WWII.
In light of the fact that Hitler imprisoned all opposing members of the Reichstag before he was "elected" (ultimately murdering them) I would take the position that his taking power in Germany was never legitimate, and thus, the prior government was still in power. The Nuremberg Trials took that position, that Hitler's government was not legitimate and the Nazi "laws" did not supplant the democratically passed laws that predated him.
But if Germany, one of the most important members of the European Union, isn't a real country, what does that do to the EU? Doesn't that make the US a member of the EU?
And since, as you seem to be arguing, the US is "really" a Zionist state, doesn't that make the EU "really" a Zionist state?
Or, perhaps, your assumption is faulty, and no body of international law or otherwise requires a "formal treaty" to transform a defeated but otherwise sovereign state back into a sovereign state. Germany never lost sovereignty, even when Hitler took power through a military coup in 1933.
If a burglar kills you and steals your house, it doesn't become his house. When the burglar is captured, the law doesn't require him to agree to give it back to your heirs, it's theirs by right.
(This is consistent with the view of the US government after the end of the Civil War. All acts of the so-called Confederate government were nullities, without legitimacy. Legitimate governmental power derives from the people.) |
