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Technology Stocks : USRX

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To: David Rosenberg who wrote (15515)3/16/1997 4:29:00 PM
From: Glenn D. Rudolph   of 18024
 
---No. In fact I am assuming your writing of one contract to the buyer
was you ("S") "selling to open" and "B" "buying to open".
According to my rule you have (1 open+ 1 open)/2= 1 open contract.


David,

This is becoming comical. I believe the division by two is incorrect. In the above example, the seller has an open contract and the buyer has an open contract so we now have two open interests.

--To summarize I am considering every transaction as a pair, namely a
linked buyer and seller and only if they are both doing the same
operation [ both opening or both closing] does the OPEN INTEREST CHANGE.
[ +1 or -1 respectively]


In the above example the open interest changes by two. I do not believe we are both saying the same thing. But are quite close.

I am wondering if I can make more money in the market knowing for sure which is correct. In eithercase, you're making me think<G> I will not go out on a limb and say I know the answer with absolute certainty. I do know the networking sector has really cut into my portfolio lately and at least I wasn't thinking about that for awhile:-)

We need the definitive calculations of open interest as the rules are posted by the CBOE or the AMEX which should be the same. They could each do it differently too LOL.

One lost sole,

Glenn
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