Dear Joan, according to my OED, the word "ideology" was invented in France in 1796 by the Compte de Tracy, a member of the National Institute of France, to name the "science of ideas." Apparently the term was frequently used disparagingly by Napoleon to describe "every species of theory, which, resting in no respect upon the basis of self-interest, could, he thought, prevail with none save hot-brained boys and crazed enthusiasts."
Now as for Karl Marx being the first to ascribe differing ideologies to differing social classes, I don't know whether that's true, but as Marx divided everything else up according to social class, I have no reason to doubt that he attempted to reduce the aspirations and goals of a heterogenous group of people sharing little besides membership in differing socio-economic categories into a so-called "ideology." It was the folly of Marx to believe that humans could be categorized thus.
But I thought that we had learned how fallacious it was to use such terms as "corporate class" or "corporate ideology." Apparently not.
Pray tell, how does one discern the "corporate class"? Do you mean everyone who has a Lexus and a 401K? Entrepeneurs don't always have corporations, so they don't count? Lawyers are usually not in corporations, so they don't count, either? And what is the "corporate ideology"? When Loral lobbies Congress, does it have the same "ideology" as Bethlehem Steel? |
