The 3 co-equal branches of government in the Weimar Republic ( a governmental republic you've never heard of) were exactly the same as we have. We are talking pre-Hitler now. The German constitution (actually Germany is what is known as a "Code" country, so they don't have a constitution per se), didn't give the Germans the right to bear arms--it was never an issue; all Germans had the right to own pistols, shotguns, etc. In fact, many brought arms from home when they were inducted into the military.
I will continue providing you information you don't know, as I am an ignoramous (and a former Professor of Comparative Law). Prior to Hitler, indeed only a few years prior, civil rights in Germany had reached such a high level, that not only were democratic elections always held, but a Jew, Walter Rathenau, was named to the high position of Foreign Minister (equivalent to our Secretary of State).
In fact, Hitler used the freedoms Germans had--free speech, assembly, arms-bearing, and such, to facilitate his rise to power. The laws and the democratic precedents were all there. Hitler had to convene judicial scholars once in office to tell him how to dismantle the laws which are equivalent to our laws. Among Hitler's "legislative acts" were the Nuremburg Laws, of which you also know nothing. The German Code system was so strong, and the judiciary so bent on enforcing all laws, that Hitler did not just issue "orders" that things happen in that early period. He actually had to formally change laws to deprive German citizens (particularly Jews) of their freedoms.
Of course, you are wrong and you are ridiculous. But you will never admit you are wrong. The ignorant cannot do this--it is too big a blow to their egos. |
