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Politics : Formerly About Advanced Micro Devices
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To: Ali Chen who wrote (128070)11/10/2000 4:57:53 PM
From: jcholewa  Read Replies (1) of 1582843
 
> If you slightly change the initial condition to 1000 heads (which apparently does not change the reasoning behind
> your formula), you will still get the miserable probability of (1/2)^1000=10^(-300), while in reality the result is 1.

The chances of getting 1000 or more heads on 2000 flips is 100%? That doesn't sound right.

    -JC

PS: I agree that my mind was fundamentally flawed at the time I wrote that earlier message. ;)
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