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Politics : Ask Michael Burke
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To: Night Trader who wrote (85263)11/13/2000 12:33:40 PM
From: Michael Bakunin  Read Replies (3) of 132070
 
The recounts indeed favor Gore. If you believe that the recounting process systematically favors him, it begs the question of why the original counting process did not. A rational explanation is that an independent factor is at work. In fact, we know that rich (read: predominantly Republican) precincts can afford modern equipment which makes very few errors (on the order of a few per thousand). Less rich (read: predominantly Democrat) precincts use more antiquated machines that muck up a couple dozen per thousand. If you assume that the recounts are more accurate than the original count, and that both counts are unbiased, then this mere difference in machinery accounts for the difference without necessitating conspiracy or fraud. -mb
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