> Comment #1:
It is the law. Why shouldn't that be discussed in the open? Everything else seems to be. Your point? <
First of all, I was the one bringing this up so obviously I think it should be discussed in the open. My point is that it is highly disturbing to me that the legislature could do this and totally supercede the vote, any vote. Doesn't that disturb you - or anyone else? What is the point of voting at all if the legislature can do whatever they want as far as assigning electors?
> Comment #2:
Gee whiz! 5, count them 5, received duplicate ballots according to a registered Democrat <
Well, I don't think you read the whole article. There are more than five.
[edit: I see you mean five people, not five duplicates]
Elaine Gatley, 48, a civil service executive secretary stationed at RAF Mildenhall in southeastern England, said Thursday that she and four fellow Floridians who work in her office received two ballots in the mail from the state of Florida.
That's ten (10). How many more may be out there?
But she said that at least three of her fellow Floridians, all of whom are registered Republican, told her that they filled out and returned the second ballots as well.
And these people filed, submitted duplicate ballots.
And, oddly, the only duplicate ballots (that this person knows about) came from Florida!
No one from other states with whom she spoke at Milden received more than one absentee ballot, said Gatley.
No one else finds this, er, odd?
> Comment #3;
Odd, isn't it? Nothing so far that the Republicans have disqualified any ballots. From any county. Or from overseas. Yet the Democrats.......
I rest my case. <
Yet the Democrats....what? You are still assuming that only Democrats have disqualified absentee ballots.
I still say:
The number of absentee ballots said to have been
disqualified IS disturbing. But why is everyone assuming
they were all disqualified by Democrats? Has everyone
assumed that the Republicans didn't disqualify a single one? |
