SI
SI
discoversearch

We've detected that you're using an ad content blocking browser plug-in or feature. Ads provide a critical source of revenue to the continued operation of Silicon Investor.  We ask that you disable ad blocking while on Silicon Investor in the best interests of our community.  If you are not using an ad blocker but are still receiving this message, make sure your browser's tracking protection is set to the 'standard' level.
Politics : Electoral College 2000 - Ahead of the Curve

 Public ReplyPrvt ReplyMark as Last ReadFilePrevious 10Next 10PreviousNext  
To: Ilaine who wrote (3491)11/27/2000 7:43:31 AM
From: jttmab  Read Replies (4) of 6710
 
...To you, it's a "gotcha!"

The fact that you want to make something of this speaks volumes about you and your candidate and your party. I'm looking forward to getting rid of your candidate and doing my best to defeat your party. You, I can't do anything about but simply shake my head in bafflement.

Let me ask you a question - suppose the person requesting the ballot sent in a letter saying "I don't have my voter registration number with me. Can you please fill it in?"

Would it be ok for the staff to do so? If not, why not?

And if yes, how is this any different?


I honestly think that you have missed the point. It's a discussion of following the letter of the law or the intent and consistent application. The same law[s] that were passed by the Florida legislature include requirements for dates, postmarks and the legal way to fill out a registration form. If one wants to follow the letter of the law, then fine, follow the letter of the law. If one wants to follow the intent of the law, that's fine also. Though, IMO, the judicial should determine where the letter of the law can be bent.

Ray's point is consistency and not his illustration.

Let me ask you a question - suppose the person requesting the ballot sent in a letter saying "I don't have my voter registration number with me. Can you please fill it in?" Would it be ok for the staff to do so? If not, why not? And if yes, how is this any different?

Does "ok" mean, the vote should be counted? ... The answer is straightforward....does the legislation provide for this alternative? If not, then no. Then, if the judicial makes a ruling that the above satisfies the "intent" of the legislation, then yes.

In Texas [and many other states] manual counting is acceptable. In Florida it's apparently not.

In Texas they count "dimples"; in Florida it's "divining".

The GOP camp said this should be kept out of the courts; they were this first into court.

The GOP camp that the Dems should accept the decision of the courts and not appeal; The GOP camp lost some decisions and appealed.

Some people view these as <inconsistent> or not being <fair>. Some of the members of the thread don't see a problem a problem at all. Vendit, sandintoes, moose, and Cyberken can't see why there is a consistency issue.

Regards,
jttmab
Report TOU ViolationShare This Post
 Public ReplyPrvt ReplyMark as Last ReadFilePrevious 10Next 10PreviousNext