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Politics : Libertarian Discussion Forum
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To: William Marsh who wrote (4012)12/2/2000 9:49:49 PM
From: TimF  Read Replies (1) of 13060
 
On gun ownership in colonial times, I have read reviews of history books in the last year which examine gun ownership. The conclusion was that it was much less prevalent then today. No you know what I know.

The number of guns was certainly less then today but there were also less people. The number of guns per person may have been less but probably not the percentage of people who owned guns. I think that fewer people had large private collections. People had less money back then and guns were not mass produced the way they are now. All of this is not including police or military owned guns in the equation. The standing military is much bigger now and so are police forces.

Again, "right to bear arms" means "right to serve in the military", thereby ensuring a citizen army. It does not mean right to own weapons.

So "the right to keep and bear arms", does not mean "the right to own weapons"? A rather twisted interpretation. I suppose you could keep and bear arms owned by someone else but that its a stretch to see that as the
meaning of the amendment.

Even if the amendment was put in place for the specific reasons of making sure that the militia would have guns available that does not mean that it is limited to people in the militia. Nothing in the amendment says anything like "the right of militia members shall not be infringed", or "this amendment only protects the rights of people who are in the militia or the army".

Tim
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