kash, RE: If you watched the olympics, i am sure you saw a very large proportion of athletic gold medals going to blacks.
So in the short period of time when significant numbers of blacks have had remotely an even field to compete they have excelled even when numbers of black people is sub 10% of the overall field.
Tell me why its bigoted to make such an observation??
Because the most logical conclusion is different. The only reason I can come up with to strike a conclusion similar to yours is because of bigotry.
The most logical answer is that the differences are cultural.
Using your logic, the countries in Africa, which has a much larger Negro population than the US, would dominate the Olympics. Yet they don't.
The country of Russia, which has almost zero black people, would never win a medal. Yet they dominate more sports than the United States.
Fifty years ago, there wasn't even a running race over 800 meters for women in the Olympics. Back then, people thought the excess distance would strain their fragile physiques. The only logic, though, is that women were not running in races that long when in reality they weren't given the opportunity. Now we know that as absurd.
There is vastly more evidence that athletic superiority of various races and countries is different sports is due to the cultural differences, not any genetic differences. |