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Pastimes : Clown-Free Zone... sorry, no clowns allowed
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To: patron_anejo_por_favor who wrote (151216)2/14/2002 2:30:09 PM
From: posthumousone  Read Replies (1) of 436258
 
Divedend question.
Say the ex-div date is 2/1 and the div date is 3/1
You have to be a shareholder as of the 2/1 date to be eligible for the divedend.

What happens if your a holder of 1000 shares as of 2/1, sell all your shares (1000) on 2/5 and buy back 1000 shares on 2/8 and hold past 3/1? Are you still eligible of the divedend?

Is the rule you have to be a shareholder from ex-div to div date?
just curiuos
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