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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group

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To: JohnM who wrote (19898)	2/24/2002 11:03:56 PM
From: Ilaine	Read Replies (4) of 281500

Last semester for a graduate level history class on Depression era films my term paper topic was images of fascism in American Depression era films. Did quite a bit of research on fascism, especially American fascism, and came across a great argument that fascism never arose in countries which were not democratic. It was always voted in. Which is true. Why? My take on it is that American fascism is an extremist outgrowth of populism, and a natural development of extending the voting franchise to non-elite white men in the 19th century. As our Ray never tires of pointing out, globalization (read immigration for the 19th-early 20th century) benefits the elites more than those at the bottom of the ladder, who are forced to compete (then) with recent immigrants who may not have been 100% Amurricans but were better educated and/or better trained and/or willing to work for less, and (now) forced to compete with the same people overseas. Given the vote, isn't it natural that they would try to make "America for Americans" and "Germany for Germans"?

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