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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group

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To: Ilaine who wrote (22012)	3/23/2002 9:42:48 AM
From: gamesmistress	Read Replies (1) of 281500

If the Jews "appeased" Hitler then so did Czechoslovakia. In both cases no one was willing to defend the rights of the weaker group or country, neither one of which could have stood up to Hitler on its own, and both of which were sacrificed in the interest of "peace". Neither the Jews nor Czechoslovakia had any leverage to truly negotiate with Hitler - Britain and France did, and you know what happened. I don't know what I would have done if I had been a German Jew in 1930's Germany - but "fighting back" - just how do you suppose they could have done that, with no support from anyone else? And even if I decided to leave, where could I have gone to be safe? My point is that the Jews had no power to appease - they had to take what Hitler dished out or get out. Britain and France were the appeasers - they had the power to do something and they didn't.

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