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Pastimes : THE SLIGHTLY MODERATED BOXING RING

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To: Rick Julian who wrote (11173)4/28/2002 12:40:33 PM
From: Lazarus_Long   of 21057
 
Let's try a new approach to beating the BS out of you. Remember this?
Message 17394162

Now let's say your definitions of F, m, and a are correct and quantifiable (highly speculative, I'd say). How do you know the relationship between them is F=ma and not F=m^a or F=-m*cos(a) or F=cosh(ma) or F=a*e^m or .......

For that matter, how do you F is a function of only of m and a instead of them plus 30 other variables? Or just 30 other variables and not dependent on m and a at all? Proof?

And if the relationship does not take the form F=ma, what do the laws of physics have to do with this anyway?
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