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Strategies & Market Trends : Gorilla and King Portfolio Candidates

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To: hueyone who wrote (52186)7/18/2002 1:30:13 PM
From: A.L. Reagan  Read Replies (1) of 54805
 
Huey, to the extent options are issued and become exerciseable and the firm does not repurchase a corresponding number of shares, a free cash flow per share calculation should solve the problem provided the denominator is the fully diluted number of shares.

Likewise, to the extent the firm repurchases shares, the funds used for the repurchase, net of proceeds for new share issuance on exercise, ought to be deducted from free cash flow prior to calculating FCF per share.

The calculation I am suggesting should be neutral on FCF per share regardless of whether or not options are expensed. If they are expensed, the expense is a non-cash outlay. But where things get a little confusing is that the classic GAAP calculation of fully diluted shares doesn't necessarily take into account all issued option grants from day one. As Paul noted, the granularity of trying to make these adjustments over very short periods of time mightn't be worth it.
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