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Politics : War

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To: Nadine Carroll who wrote (16477)8/18/2002 10:58:32 PM
From: Eashoa' M'sheekha  Read Replies (2) of 23908
 
If My Memory Serves.......

You will recall the term " massacre " was attributed to an interview on CNN of a Pal. representative being interviewed and saying he thought the number dead could be as high as 500. NEVER in the interview did he state there was a " massacre " and never did he use the term " massacre ".

However,the JP reported that he stated there was a "massacre " ,and that's where the whole thing got started and snowballed from there.

This was discussed at length on the FADG , but it was sometime well after the hullabaloo that these facts came to the forefront.

THAT"S what I meant by the " The origin of the Jenin " massacre " story ".

I am aware of events during and after and we discussed them at length on the FADG as well.

My post was to clarify the issue regarding the origin of the term " massacre " relating to Jenin , since many were quick to scoff at the whole affair in cynical fashion afterward ,using the terms " nossacre " and " Jeningrad " , which I find equally repulsive and insensitive, given the roots mentioned.

Does that clarify things?

PS: If necessary I can try to dig up the information from that time period when I get an op.
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