Out of curiosity, why?
As far as I know, no society without some external resource to undertake many of basic labors of society -- slaves, serfs, domesticated animals (horses, camels, etc.) or machines, and often a combination of those -- has ever achieved the degree of leisure necessary for a flowering of the arts and sciences.
Are you arguing that without any slaves, Greece could still have achieved the leisure and surplus production necessary for the flowering of art, architecture, drama, philsosophy, science, etc.?
If so, on what do you base that? What other society has ever done it? |