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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group

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To: D. Long who wrote (47825)9/29/2002 11:48:17 AM
From: GST  Read Replies (1) of 281500
 
I do not presume to be able to say I know of any single interpretation of "immenant threat", only that this seems to be the standard that countries, or people for that matter, are held to if they intend to have their actions seen as self-defense. For example, my mother is afraid of black people. If armed with a pistol, and if she was informed that she could kill anybody who made her feel threatened in some vague sense, she would kill a lot of people. I expect that India would have a good case against Pakistan based on the level of threat we are applying to Iraq. I think you could say the same of Israel in relation to most of its neighbors. Both India and Israel are nuclear powers and it would seem logical that if nothing is off-limits that both of these countries should simply wipe-out their neighbors in "self-defense" first strike. During the cold-war, both the Soviet Union and the United States could have justified a nuclear first-strike as "self-defense". In all cases, the logic seems to be that if you expect that your enemy is using a first-strike self-defense logic, then you are being threatened and should employ a first-strike self-defense attack before they do. I would like to know if you see it the same way.
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