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Strategies & Market Trends : Stock Attack II - A Complete Analysis

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To: ajtj99 who wrote (41144)11/21/2002 11:17:57 PM
From: Joseph Silent  Read Replies (1) of 52237
 
no more than 3% upside potential

AT, I don't really want to butt in, but I'd like to suggest that its best not stated as a theorem (a definite).

It's based on data and, as such, is empirical.

It may have a high likelihood of occurring based on data (perhaps as high as 100%) but it cannot be guaranteed to occur in the future.

A rather simple but, hopefully, explanatory example is the following.

Suppose that on your daily evening mile-long walks, your legs have never buckled under you and made you fall on your behind. If you use that data to predict the probability that your legs will not buckle before you complete walking a mile tomorrow or next week, you'll get the probability to be zero (since your data says that your legs have never buckled before).

You must realize, however, that there is no guarantee that your legs won't buckle tomorrow or next week (and I'm really not using age as the reason).

A single new data-point can change an empirically defined probability 1 event to an event with probability less than 1. So, even though you may be right in this case and the next one thousand, there can be no "definites". :)
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