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Pastimes : Ask God

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To: Scott Shaw who wrote (34487)3/12/2003 12:11:50 AM
From: Jamey  Read Replies (1) of 39621
 
Scott, I will not undertake to attempt to give you a reasonable explanation because it would be so lengthy that it is hardly appropriate to explain on a message board. The language of the Bible is in literal, relative, spiritual and the romantic. The prophesy of the first destruction of the Temple if believed literally shows the same imagery as Christ used to tell of the final destruction and the apocalypse. The earth never ended, nor did the sun become devoid of light as was prophesied in the Old Testament. But it was such an astounding occurrence that the prophetic language of the age demanded it.

When Christ sent the apostles to preach the Gospel to all the Nations he didn't mean the whole world as most say. Obviously, the apostles took the word to the twelve tribes of Israel. Fourteen years later the risen Christ gave the job to Paul to take the Gospel to the Gentiles. Peter and James were astounded that God had given even salvation to the Gentiles, although they agreed that Paul was the one Christ appointed to do the job of taking it outside Israel.

THe apocalypse was meant for the Jews and Christ came in judgement of the Jewish polity, not the world. I do wish you would buy a copy of "The Parousia" by J. Stuart Russell. Its almost 600 pages long in small writing- but if you are diligent in studying this important work and then going on to reading "The War of the Jews" by Josephus, a Jewish General and historian, the truth will become evident that Preterism does use the Bible to prove the Bible and well it should be done: Not by following a doctrine that became interesting only a few hundred years ago that is attempting to do a remake of Bible prophesy that already occurred 2000 years ago.

Regards,
James
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