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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group
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To: GST who wrote (108864)7/30/2003 12:03:07 PM
From: Neocon  Read Replies (2) of 281500
 
Is there no consideration of legitimacy, when the ruler in effect makes war upon his own people? Suppose that the Nazis had not had expansionist designs in the '30s and '40s, but had merely decided to exterminate German Jews, homosexuals, gypsies, the chronically infirm, and political opponents. Would it have been immoral to have overthrown the regime? Would a regime like that have moral claims to sovereignty, or merely legalistic claims?
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