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Politics : Sharks in the Septic Tank
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To: Neocon who wrote (72021)8/7/2003 12:07:13 PM
From: Solon  Read Replies (1) of 82486
 
Even if a "bias in favor of heterosexuality" is reasonable that does not explain how such a bias may reasonably be linked to discrimination in favour of heterosexual couples in marriage. On what basis does allowing gays to marry interfere with that bias?

A bias is specific and not general. Obviously, sociologists have a bias toward studying homosexuals when they are writing a report on the adaptability of homosexuals. I believe you are speaking of a bias as regards reproductive capacity. I.E. that heterosexuals are more likely to reproduce than homosexuals--or at least, that if homosexuals decided to reproduce it would more likely be for survival of the species rather than for pleasure: A pragmatic action somewhat like growing corn so they can survive.

Now I grant you that there is this bias in favour of heterosexuals and the likelihood to reproduce. However, I do not see the premises on which you wish to link this to the marriage question? Marriage does not interfere with the survival or the reproduction of heterosexuals. And I belive you said earlier that you were not approaching it from a morals perspective so I can presumanbly eliminate that from consideration as to your intended meaning.

So let us go over our agreement:

1). Homosexuals are less likely to reproduce than heterosexuals,

2). As regards reproduction there appears to be a natural bias in favour of heterosexuality,

3). As regards survival of both tendencies there does not appear to be a natural bias either way as both continue to survive and to flourish across time,

4). Marriage does not lessen the natural bias of heterosexuals for reproductive success,

5). Marriage of homosexuals would not lessen the natural bias of heterosexuals for reproductive success,

6). We are not aproaching the question of whether or not homosexuals may reasonably be discriminated against in marriage law from a morals perspective.

I believe we are in agreement on the preceding 6 points. So I am still left with how to get from there to

7). Therefore, this natural bias for reproductive success which attaches to the heterosexual population is a reasonable basis for defining marriage because...?
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