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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group

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To: GST who wrote (122427)	12/28/2003 11:40:17 PM
From: Hawkmoon	Read Replies (1) of 281500

The only reason the US could have and did have to invade France was to drive out the Germans. Uh.. GST?? There were no German troops located in Vichy French territory (Morocco, Algeria, Tunisia, Levant States, or Vichy France proper).. The US invaded what was technically a neutral country and non-belligerent. spartacus.schoolnet.co.uk Edit.. thought I might add this in case you doubted that German troops had not occupied Vichy France proper: naval-history.net Southern France - Hitler orders German troops into unoccupied Vichy France on the 11th. On the 27th, SS units try to capture the French fleet at Toulon. They are too late to stop the scuttling of three battleships, seven cruisers, 30 destroyers, 16 submarines and many other smaller vessels. And in case you might not be aware, the US was not sure that they would be greeted as allies by the Vichy French forces in N. Africa during Operation Torch. There was actually some sporadic combat between US and French forces. Hawk

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