SI Member Vote 2004/SubjectMarks Only For Bush Message Board

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Politics : SI Member Vote 2004/SubjectMarks Only For Bush

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To: Wildstar who wrote (129)	8/8/2004 1:37:31 PM
From: Rarebird	Read Replies (1) of 812

<How can a "right" be something granted to one person based on an obligation of another person to provide it?> Excellent Question. In the Middle Ages theories of natural right based right on God’s will and/or on an Aristotelian idea of what is in accord with man’s nature. (I'm not religious so don't assume I buy into any of the answers from the Middle Ages.) I would ground right on the idea of human beings as free. Kant tried to do this in his concept of the "categorical imperative" and I think he succeeded. Let me give you a concrete example: I've been married for over 27 years. I meet a woman recently who is absolutely gorgeous and who wants to have sex with me. I'm turned on to her tremendously. Sensually speaking, I'd love to have sex with this woman. However, I don't do it. Why? Because I feel an "obligation" to my wife. She has been "good" to me, she is my best friend and she has given birth to our 3 sons. Why should I hurt her? Because my pencil is flying high. No. I say no. So, by placing myself under this obligation or duty, I enact the right of respect towards my wife. This "right" came from my Obligation and Duty as a husband and which my Free Will affirmed. I'm under the "obligation" because it is embedded within my "Practical Reason" and it represents an essential element within my relation to my wife. Sorry, but morality is not all relative or just based on emotion or whim. The same argument can be applied towards universal healthcare. Ultimately, it is based on love and respect for humanity. I'll let you think it through for yourself.

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