Some of that land was 'bought' from absentee owners of tracts on which lived indigenous under a form of usufruct which was broken when zionists evicted them ... in some of these cases, the indigenous were sent away with a little cash money, yes that's true
Some of the land had been more or less legitimately acquired, possibly more than five per cent, that is also true, and yes there was pre-zionist non-zionist jewish presence, a small percentage, yes yes, and some christians and druze, yes yes yes
Still it was a land inhabited predominantly by arab muslims, and for the most part had been ruled by muslims for centuries, crusaders and brits had their periods, but mostly muslims ... zionism was all about imposing a jewish rule on a land clearly arab, and in 1948 that's what they did, they took far more than they had bought, took it by force of arms and looted the possessions of arabs ... so the majority of Palestine was in fact simply taken
Your post is saying, arabs should lose their land because on another continent nazis committed crimes ... well you may find that acceptable justification for theft, the arab is unlikely to ... it was massive importation of european jews and arms after the war that brought on the 1948 conflict ... after, not before ... you can't just jump back and forth all over the timeline looking for justification, not to anyone who's reviewed the history |