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Politics : Politics for Pros- moderated

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To: Ilaine who wrote (115953)5/24/2005 3:53:13 PM
From: carranza2  Read Replies (2) of 793808
 
But the history of the Constitution is clear. It was NOT intended to restrain states vis-a-vis their own citizens. It was intended to be a pact between the states.

The Bill of Rights did not apply to the states, it applied to the federal government. That's why it says things like "Congress shall make no law."


By your logic, the States before the 14th Amendment could have with impunity imposed religious restrictions on their citizens, never mind that one of the reasons our country was established was to allow the free exercise of religion.

Do you know of any cases in which State restrictions on rights granted by the Bill of Rights were upheld by any court on the ground you cited, i.e., that the BOR did not apply to the States?
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