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Politics : Should God be replaced?

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To: Oeconomicus who wrote (20538)6/20/2005 6:26:24 PM
From: Solon  Read Replies (1) of 28931
 
"Is it absolute or is it limited?"

Philisophically...the answer is "yes". But I will not bore you with advanced logic.

The right to free speech is NEVER limited. The restriction on free speech (in order to conform to the principle that EVERY individual has that right) has restrictions. The speech and the RIGHT are not the same. "Free speech" must be understood in the conglomerate in order that rights DO remain inviolate. Your right to free speech may not violate my inalienable rights. Otherwise the concept and principle would be feckless.

"Society has allowed speech to be limited"

More accurate and to the point...no rights may be allowed to subvert or diminish the rights of another. You are a smart person. You are going to understand this, yet!

"So, it seems the difference in our positions is that what I describe as society's laws determining the precedence of rights in conflict, you describe as a "limitation" on rights that prevents them from conflicting. You are simply defining away the problem."

YOU are defining away the philosophical accuracy. Inalienable rights are independent of interpretations by you, me, or society. They may NOT conflict. The appearance of conflict is merely a difference of interest and opinion.

"I say society decides, through it's laws. You say ... what?

I say everybody capable of rational thought decides. And I say that the decision of "society" will carry. Rights are not "limited". They are simply interpreted and constrained to their logical parameters. Inalienable rights remain inalienable in spite of all the yammering of children and adults. The whole point of the courts is to appeal to the sense and logic of INALIENABLE rights as espoused in the CONSTITUTION.
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