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Politics : Should God be replaced?
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To: Oeconomicus who wrote (21371)7/20/2005 3:10:29 PM
From: Solon  Read Replies (1) of 28931
 
"If, for example, one commits murder, one has not only violated another's inalienable rights"

Obviously! Inalienable does not mean INVINCIBLE! And it does not mean Absolute or infinite! All rights (inalienable and legal) are constrained by essence and by law.

Inalienable rights do not conflict. But they must be interpreted by society as to limit. Your individual right to freedom is understood to be limited by the individual rights of all others. That is ALWAYS the way it was. The law simply makes what is immanent...VISIBLE. In general...if you do no harm to others, then you are respecting their inalienable rights. And if they do no harm to you, then they are respecting your inalienable rights. If society harnesses you to the self interest of another entity such that your own self interest is fundamentally annulled (such as by making you a slave to another on a plantation), then your rights have been swept under the table. There is a difference between recognizing the inherent limitations of "rights"...and sweeping them under the table.

The rights to life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness have an invisible premise:

"UNDERSTANDING THAT THESE RIGHTS ARE ONLY LOGICAL AND COHERENT WHEN IT IS UNDERSTOOD THAT THEY BELONG TO ALL PEOPLE AND THUS ARE RESTRICTED TO ACTIONS WHICH PERMIT NO VIOLATION OF THOSE RIGHTS IN OTHERS"

You have a right NOT to be murdered so murder IS a violation of rights...NOT A CONFLICT IN RIGHTS. Inalienable rights do NOT conflict. Your right NOT to be murdered MAY be violated. But the theory is that you had the right to life. The murder was a violation--not an exception.
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