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Politics : Polite Political Discussion- is it Possible? An Experiment.
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To: Rambi who wrote (1221)8/31/2006 1:52:11 AM
From: Bread Upon The WaterRead Replies (1) of 1695
 
First of all one could make an argument that it only became possible for women to assert themselves when technology advanced far enough that women could control their reproductive selves; AND, that US Society in order to remain viable economically needed them to go back to work.

In other words, women's rights only arose as a by product of those two events. The pill "liberated" women to go into the work force in a much more permanent way. Additionally, the rise of global competition 25-30 years after WWII necessitated
the employment of women in the work force. It is only because of these two things that women have obtained "rights".

Take away modern society and women again become economic chattel.

I think your argument assumes a future wherein men will stand for total parity among the sexes. This, IMHO, is totally inconsistent with our biological history and could lead to a literal war between the sexes. Indeed, the traditional role of a woman also offered her protection in that role--the honor and respect of motherhood, the imperative upon men to protect women and provide for them.

As women move out of the previous role, the imposition of the cultural imperatives on men diminish and fade. Hence, men are culturally free to lash out at non-traditional women who are usurping men's biological role as protector and provider (women have sought to maintain the cultural imperative by legislating it, but this has been a tough go).

If women become men--what will men become?
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