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Pastimes : Ask God

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To: Jamey who wrote (8822)10/2/1997 3:57:00 PM
From: O'Hara   of 39621
 
><>...James, Hope this helps also...><>

The first time the word Jews is mentioned in scripture is in 2 Kings 16:1,2,5,7.

In the 17th year Pekah,the son of Remaliah, Ahaz, the son of Jotham, king of Judah began to reign anmd reigned 16 yrs. in Jeruasalem.......Then Resin, King of Syria,and Pekah, son of Remaliah,King of Israel, came up to Jerusalem to war, and they beseiged Ahaz (King of Judah), but could not overcome him. At that time Resin, King of Syria, recovered Elath to Syria and drave the Jews from Elath....

So Ahaz sent messengers to Tiglathpileser, King of Assyria, saying, I am thy servant and son, come up and save me out of the hand of the king of Syria, AND out of the hand of the King of Israel,which rise up against me.

It is clearly stated that in this war the beseiging party is Pekah, the King of Israel, and the beseiged party was Ahaz the King of Judah, the head of the Jews whose head is Jerusalem, the head of the house of David.

If the Jews were beseiged and Israel was one of the beseigers then how is it possible that the Jews and Israel are one and the same people?

Consider Jer.13:11
11 For as the girdle cleaveth to the loins of a man, so have I caused to cleave unto me
the whole house of Israel and the whole house of Judah, saith the LORD; that they might be unto me for a people, and for a name, and for a praise, and for a glory: but they would not hear.
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We can understand from this scripture that the whole house of Judah does not by itself make up all of the Lord's people and that the whole house of Israel does not of itself make up all of the Lord's people, But that it takes the whole house of Judah and
the whole house of Israel combined to make all of His chosen people.

It also shows that "the whole house of Israel" of which "the whole house of Judah" is regarded as neither part nor parcel. It is true of course that they are brethren, because they all are the seed of Jacob.

As such they are "Jacobites," OR since Jacobs's name
was changed to Israel his descendants may be called Israelites. But it is a fact that the seed of Jacob had been divided by the will, direct intervention and the decree of God,into Two Kingdoms.

"The whole house of Israel", "the children of Israel" "The house of Israe;," All Israel,
And "Israel"..

While the other nation is called "the whole house of Judah", "the house of Judah","the children of Judah" "all Judah", and "Judah" OR "the Jews".

The name Jew is derived from the name of Judah (son of Jacob), Hence the name Jew and Jews are applied ONLY to the people who composed the Kingdom of Judah and "all Judah" and which finally bacame known as "Judea" and "Jewry", "all Judea" and All Jewry.

Just one point for now .
Rom. 9:6
Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect, For they are not all Israel which are OF Israel....

Just because one lived in Israel did no make them the seed of Israel (Jacob)

And...Because Abraham had other sons. One was Ishmael, child born of Hagar, who was given the promise of his own nation.

Gen.21:13 And there were also the sons Abraham had with his second wife Ketura...

The promise was only Abraham passed to Isaac, passed on to Jacob (Israel)
Rom 9:7
7 Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.

Jew and Israel are not interchangable.!To remember this is very helpful.!

God bless you my good friend, and talk to you later
Shalom...><>
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