No it isn't. Majority rule doesn't equal consent.
Maybe not in the libertarian world...
en.wikipedia.org
Using thinking similar to that of English political scientist John Locke, the founders of the United States believed in a state built upon the consent of "free and equal" citizens; a state otherwise conceived would lack the legitimacy and the authority to exercise legal authority. This was expressed, among other places, The 2nd paragraph of the Declaration of Independence[1] and in the Virginia Bill of Rights, especially Section 6, quoted below:
That elections of members to serve as representatives of the people, in assembly, ought to be free; and that all men, having sufficient evidence of permanent common interest with, the attachment to, the community, have the right of suffrage, and cannot be taxed or deprived of their property for publick uses without their own consent, or that of their representatives so elected, nor bound by any law to which they have not, in like manner, assented, for the public good."[2] |
