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Politics : Foreign Affairs Discussion Group
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To: SARMAN who wrote (272378)12/30/2009 5:21:58 PM
From: Hawkmoon  Read Replies (1) of 281500
 
Can they produce Title and Deed to that property?
haaretz.com;

Sarman.. ALL THAT PROVES is that the Ottoman's granted a deed that was valid UNDER OTTOMAN RULE.

That rule was technically nullified when the British and French DEFEATED the Ottomans and commenced administration of their former territories and the Turks either destroyed or removed all previous land records issued during their rule.

Technically speaking, and given no way of identifying who "owned" what (even tacitly) they had the power to overrule ALL PREVIOUS DEEDS AND TITLES to Ottoman controlled land as they saw fit. And that's just what they did.

In fact, Arab squatters on previously Ottoman owned land were given the right to hold or sell that land as if they could actually prove ownership and many of them, in fact, did. Thus, it's like having a renter sell your property because the government has lost or hidden your title and deed.

And think about this.. If the world begins recognizing the property rights of former subjects of the Ottoman Empire, does that not mean that we have to recognize the rights of Turkish property owners in those same territories?

Do you want to open up those Turkish documents and recognize TURKISH PROPERTY OWNERSHIP (especially the absentee landlords)??

Do we start recognizing Mexican deeds/titles for land they previously ruled in Texas?

Remember.. this was all PRIOR to the Fourth Geneva Convention.

If so, little did they know about the traitors.

Hey.. it was their leadership in 1948 that opted to have all West Bank residents become Jordanian subjects. You can't blame that on the Israelis.

And when they became Jordanian subjects, they surrendered all claim to creating their own independent state under UN auspices.

So you can't call them "traitors" when they CHOSE to become Jordanian subjects instead of creating their own Palestinian state.

Hawk
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