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GLD 414.48+0.7%Jan 9 4:00 PM EST

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To: THE ANT who wrote (64328)6/22/2010 3:55:22 AM
From: Elroy Jetson1 Recommendation  Read Replies (1) of 219210
 
Even where there's a demonstrated association between a disease and wealth, such as gout in an historical setting where the wealthy could afford to eat large amounts of certain foods like meats and alcohol, you need to be very suspicious of any pathology being associated with income or intelligence.

Almost exclusively this turns out to be a situation of a higher incidence of diagnosis, not an actual higher incidence of illness. There are two primary etiologies of hyperuricemia which can manifest as gout, neither of which has any connection with intelligence or wealth - and there's only a small correlation with diet. So it's obvious that gout was historically under-diagnosed among the poor. The wealthy can pay to have someone listen to their complaints.

en.wikipedia.org

Another aspect of an "historical package" like "Tourettes" is that it's obviously a spectrum of causes described as a particular syndrome based on similar symptoms - and things with identical causes being called Tourettes or not depending entirely on symptomatology.

en.wikipedia.org

It's like "short man disease". Giving something a name doesn't mean that it's all caused by the same thing, and where do you draw the line? How short does an adult male have to be in order to be diagnosed with "short man's disease".
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