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Politics : American Presidential Politics and foreign affairs
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To: DuckTapeSunroof who wrote (44472)7/28/2010 7:36:29 PM
From: TimF  Read Replies (1) of 71588
 

Re: "Then they would without the transfer, but not necessarily than they formally had, unless its the only change that's happening which is rarely the case."

I can't make hide nor hair out of that last sentence....

If A transfers money to B, than A is poorer than he would have been had he not transferred money to B, but he might actually be richer after the transfer than before since other things are also happening.

Re: "In fact as the rich have gotten richer, the net transfers from them have increased."

But is their WEALTH increasing ("Net" <g>) at a faster rate still then any 'transfers' away from them?

(from before the recession) - Yes, but their wealth increasing is not the same as wealth being transferred to them, and in fact doesn't require any transfers to them.

Exchanges are not transfers. Increases in value of owned assets are not transfers and don't even require the owner to partake in exchanges.

That is what we started with: the relative RATE of wealth accumulation for the various groups.

No, what we started with was my statement that wealth was being transferred away from the wealthy, and your response that my statement was utter nonsense.

The rich getting richer, continually, over a long time, and by a massive amount, is perfectly compatible with the net transfer of wealth being from the rich to the not rich, and even with that net transfer away from the rich increasing over time.

"Change in wealth" != "transfer"
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