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Strategies & Market Trends : TA-Quotes Plus

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To: Gary Lyben who wrote (2643)12/6/1997 4:06:00 PM
From: Nine_USA  Read Replies (1) of 11149
 
Gary,

Your calculation of moneyflow correctly reflects the formula
you provide:

(((Close - Low)-(High-Close)) / (High- Low)) * Volume

How absolutely worthless the indicator is became clear
to me when I reviewed the data for ASND on Dec 4 & 5:

Dec 4 close = 26.875

Dec 5 open = 29.75
high = 32.25
low = 28.375
close = 28.94

The MF value for Dec 5 is about -$21,300,000.

If ASND had traded ALL DAY at its
low price of 28.375, that would have
been 30,146,000 shares, each up
1 1/2 over the prior close. This MF is +$45,000,000

And, of course, ASND did NOT trade
at its low all day but ranged as
high as up 5 3/8.

A more defensible approach, and one
which as well, does not involve the
opening price is to use the average of
high and low times the day volume.
This is:

((1 1/2 + 5 3/8)/2)*30,146,000

or 3 7/16 * 30.146m or about +$104,000,000

I don't want to beat a dead horse,
but for an indicator to be

-21m versus a clear worst case of
+45m or a realistic value of
+104m, persuades me to avoid it.

I think this explains many moneyflow
plots which are puzzling & counter-intuitive.
In the course of a year, the anomalies on the
low end are probable close to those on the
high end. But, maybe not.

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