| | | It Depends on What the Meaning of 'Settled Law' Is Ann Coulter | Oct 16, 2013
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No major legislation has ever been passed like Obamacare -- and I'm using the word "passed" pretty loosely.
It became law without both houses ever voting on the same bill. (Say, is the Constitution considered "settled law"?) Not one Republican voted for it -- and a lot of Democrats immediately wished they hadn't.
Historically, big laws have been enacted with large, bipartisan majorities. In 1935, President Roosevelt enacted Social Security with a 372-33 vote in the House and 77-6 in the Senate.
In 1965, Medicare passed in the Senate 70-24 and the House 307-116, with the vast majority of Democrats supporting this Ponzi scheme and Republicans roughly split.
Reagan's magnificent tax cuts in 1981 -- which Democrats now denounce as if they'd been appalled at the time -- passed with a vote of 89-11 in the Senate and even 323-107 in the hostile Democratic House.
Even Bill Clinton's signature legislative achievement -- Midnight Basketball for the Homeless -- received more bipartisan support than Obamacare.
No law, certainly not one that fundamentally alters the role of the government, has ever been passed like this.
But now, this greased-through, irregular law is relentlessly defended as "settled law" and "the law of the land"! (At least the parts that Obama hasn't unconstitutionally waived -- again, anybody know if the Constitution is "settled law"?)
Wow -- Obamacare sounds fantastic! Not only does Congress refuse to live under it, but its proponents' strongest argument is that it's "settled law!"
The most hilarious part of the "settled law" argument is that it's coming from the left, for whom nothing is ever "settled" until they get their way -- as described in my new book, Never Trust a Liberal Over Three-Especially a Republican. |
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