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Politics : Formerly About Advanced Micro Devices
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To: RMF who wrote (870677)9/8/2015 3:05:40 PM
From: TimF  Read Replies (2) of 1575451
 
I would assume only felonious killings with guns would be relevant, not self defense.

I submit that at the time of the first murder, a person is more likely to have a prior record in crime then at the arrest for his first felony (which may be an non-violent felony).

Also your question doesn't strike me as a particularly important one. A career criminal that has so far gotten away with it, and has no felony convictions, still might not be the most likely person to buy insurance for his weapon and his use of it.

Your earlier assertion was no that they had not been convicted of any crime or any felony at the time of the first murder, but that they were not criminals. That assertion strikes me as more relevant to the issue under discussion then your later one, but also even less likely to be true.
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