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Strategies & Market Trends : A.I.M Users Group Bulletin Board

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To: OldAIMGuy who wrote (3683)	12/26/1997 2:01:00 PM
From: Bruce A. Bowman	Read Replies (3) of 18928

Hi Tom- I need a little help with this one. The first colimn of numbers is apparently the last closing price. What's the 2nd column? 52-Wk Low? If that's the case, I guess he left out the 52-Wk High to save space. It leaves me wondering, though, why there's no entries for delta for CY & LLTC. On the chance you understand Charlie's explanation of Hi-Low apx, perhaps you can lend some insight into what it's supposed to represent. It appears to be the algebraic sum of 52-Wk High delta (%) and 52-Wk Low delta (%), which makes it an relate to % of range but significantly different. I'm guessing he uses this because it better represents potential volatility than directly using % of 52-week range. Seems to be a very clever screening tool for finding potential movers. Bruce

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