Boy, I am surprised you learned how to read and write. Some things do not require the scientific method for crying out loud. You do not need the scientific method to know not to jump off a cliff, or how things like math must be learned by building one concept on top of another.
Some things are common sense, which you seem to lack entirely.
Following history is the best way to see how the human species evolved culturally e.g. printing books led to enlightenment.
When the ancient Greeks developed functional written language and then became literate and figured out things like ethics and democracy it is plain to see. And their intellectual development is plain to see.
And segregation was certainly ended by education, as was slavery and misogyny . It was the collective unconscious of people who's knowledge finally reached a point where the majority of people saw how wrong those things were.
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| >> One does not need to be social scientist to see the connection between morality and education . It is as plain as day.
"Plain as day", AFAIK, does not comport with the scientific method.
>> As the world became educated all of the above have been"OUTLAWED", at least in the west. But the women still did not get the right to vote in this country until less than a hundred years ago and segregation ended only 50 years ago.
What you are arguing, in effect, is correlation but zero evidence of causation. Not saying I agree with any aspect of it but that is the essence of your argument. Not exactly "scientific."
Where is the nexus between education and these other events? You think the end of segregation was a result of education? AFAIK, segregation was ended by the Supreme Court in Brown v. Board (347 US 483) and the ensuing enactment of the Civil Rights Act a decade later. Segregation wasn't a product of a lack of education. It was (and still is in those many places that have slavery and segregation) a product of misguided cultural norms.
So, my original question stands, unanswered by you. |
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