Wendy, I am not sure if you directed your question directly to me, but if indeed the man in question engaged in the non intercousial activity, he broke two biblically given laws, the first is (transliterated from Hebrew, the King James version is welcome): "Thou shall not spill your semen in vain" and the second is "thou shall multiply ..."
By the way, these are not violations of the 10 commandments. However, some purists may want to take comfort in the fact that both transgressions are biblically equivalent to abortion (the bible does not recognize ensoulment until the newborn has taken its own independent breath-thus the biblical law against abortion derives from the wasting of semen and breaking the "shall multiply".
However, oral sex does not seem to be adultery. Yet, yesterday Clinton said he did not have a sexual relation with the young lady, thus my question is why is it called "oral sex" and not for instance, "oral cokie baking"?
Wendy, I hope that this lengthy disertation satisfied your curiosity?
Zeev |
