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Pastimes : Ask God

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To: IN_GOD_I_TRUST who wrote (17927)6/22/1998 3:55:00 PM
From: Raymond James Norris  Read Replies (1) of 39621
 
Is Muhammad abiding with us forever? This verse implies an eternal ominpresent existence.

I noticed you didn't reply to the fact the Comforter would speak, emitting sounds as evidence from the Greek Origin of the words. How do we explain the Holy Ghost doing this?

The Message did abide with the people forever.

When Muhammad testifies of Jesus Christ, is his testimony in harmony with the entire bible? (ie - Jesus is the only way to be saved)

Don't change Jesus's words. He says to testify in Jesus, not in the whole Bible. You cannot assume he was referring to the whole Bible since the whole Bible had not been written until long after Jesus's departure. This is speculation on your part. You're assuming that to "testify of Jesus" means the Comforter must testify in agreement with Paul's works. To the Muslim, Muhammad (Pbuh) testified in Jesus completely. The Muslim believes that because the Muslim believes that some parts of the Bible are not from God. I posted a small list of Contradictions to Chris which begs the question if the entire Bible is from God.

Muhammad (Pbuh) did testify of Jesus, of his message, of his miraculous birth, etc. He confirmed that he was a true Prophet of God. Jesus (Pbuh) is also quoted in the New Testament (I don't have the reference here but I can gladly retrieve it) that man shall know the false prophets from the true ones by whether or not they testify of Jesus (Pbuh).

Further, let me ask you this, if it's not Muhammad, when did the Holy Spirit ever "testify" of Jesus? When did he ever "confrim" or teach Jesus's teachings? When did The Holy Spirit "show many things to come that you cannot bear now?"

Again, the Greek language removes all doubt. The Holy Spirit must give a message to a people. One of the strongest cases against the Holy Spirit is the fact Jesus (Pbuh) uses the word "Alos" instead of "Heteros." In Greek, the word "another" can refer to "Another of the same kind" or "another of a different kind." What is clear is that Jesus himself was a Paraclete, he called himself a Paraclete, and he promised the sending of another Paraclete to Mankind.

Had he been referring to the Holy Spirit, he would have used the Greek word "Heteros" to imply "Another Paraclete of a different kind than me." The Paraclete had to be human.

Notice the use of "he" when referring to the Paraclete and not "it." If we read John 16:13, we will find no less than SEVEN occurrences of the masculine pronoun "He" and "Himself." There is not another verse in the 66 books of the Protestant Bible or the seventy three books of the Catholic Bible which contains seven masculine pronouns, or seven feminine pronouns, or even seven neuter genders. So many masculine pronouns ill befits a ghost. The word "Spirit" (Greek, pneu'ma), is of a neutral gender and is always referred to by the pronoun "it."

Jesus (pbuh) says "I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth." What does Jesus (pbuh) mean by "ye cannot bear them now"? What did the Holy Spirit teach that Jesus had not already taught?

The Comforter "shall not speak of himself, but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak."

Now I'm not sure what interpretation you are giving the above verse, but to the Muslim the likeness to Muhammad (Pbuh) is identical. For all Muslims believe that Muhammad (Pbuh) did not speak of his own heart or thoughts, but only spoke what he heard. That's fundamental to all Muslims. They all believe that Muhammad (Pbuh) spoke what he heard. Again, how does this relate in any way to the Holy Spirit? When did the Holy Spirit speak what he heard? Ever?

How do I know this? Well there are other verses in the New Testament which makes it clear the people of that time were expecting another Prophet, another comforter. And this is a critical point:

In the Bible we read of the test that the Jews applied to Jesus (pbuh) in order to ascertain his truthfulness. The Jews had a prophecy that required Elias to come before Jesus (pbuh):

"Elias verily cometh first"
Mark 9:12

(also John 3:28). They had not seen Elias yet so they doubted the claim of Jesus (pbuh). Jesus, however, responded to them that Elias had already come but that they did not recognize him. In Matthew we read:

"But I say unto you, That Elias is come already, and they knew him not.........Then the disciples understood that he spake unto them of John the Baptist."
Matthew 17:12-13

John, however refutes the claims of Jesus (pbuh). This is one of the Christian's "dark sayings of Jesus" that their scholars have tried to reconcile for centuries. We will leave this matter for them to work out among themselves (This matter is resolved in the Gospel of Barnabas.)
Now, in John we read

"And this is the record of John, when the Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask him, Who art thou? And he confessed, and denied not; but confessed, I am not the Christ. And they asked him, What then? Art thou Elias? And he saith, I am not. Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No."
John 1:19-21

We notice that there are three distinct prophecies here: 1) Elias, 2) Jesus, 3) That prophet. The Jews were not waiting for two prophecies, but three. This can be further clarified by reading John:

"And they asked him, and said unto him, Why baptizest thou then, if thou be:
a) not that Christ,
b) nor Elias,
c) neither that prophet?"
John 1:25

If "that prophet" were Jesus (pbuh) wouldn't the third question in both verses be redundant? Further, we must remember that "That prophet" can not apply to any prophet before the time of Jesus (pbuh) because at the time of Jesus (pbuh) the Jews were still waiting for all three. Notice how when we let the Bible speak for itself, how clear these verses become. For much more evidence in this regard, there is more info regarding the Dead Sea Scroll prophesies of "two messiahs" and how the Jews who wrote the scrolls and who were waiting for the coming of Jesus (pbuh) clearly state in these scrolls that they were waiting for not one, but TWO messiahs, the first of which would be announced by an eschatological prophet.

(Please realize there are many more verses of the Bible which I believe speak very clearly of Muhammad (Pbuh) coming).

Peace and Blessings of God Be Upon You,
Ray
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