Raymond,
"Never did We send a Messenger or a Prophet before you, but; when he did recite the revelation or narrated or spoke, Shaitân (Satan) threw (some falsehood) in it. But Allâh abolishes that which Shaitân (Satan) throws in. Then Allâh establishes His Revelations. And Allâh is All-Knower, All-Wise:"
You said, "It's speaking of Prophets before Muhammad (Pbuh). How do I know? It says, "Before you."
Is the audience addressed in "before you", the reader? It seems the answer is yes! You are proposing the "before you" is referencing "before Mohammed". Well was the Qu'ran and this Qu'ranic Sura written for Mohammed or everyone else. Its seems like the simple answer would be it is written for us, obviously not Mohammad!
Also, you are selecting a specific definition of before erroneously, which in context of the verse, does not make sense. You are using before like in the meaning:
before - in the past; previously [definition from the American Heritage Dictionary]
... when the reference seems to be using this definition of before:
before - in the presence of [defined from the American Heritage Dictionary]
So let's reexamine the verse;
"Never did [God] send a Messenger or a Prophet [in the presence of] [us] ....."
Now that makes sense. Not your premise that this verse is written for Mohammed.
Read what I am saying in context to the verses surrounding it and you will see I am correct.
God Bless,
Steve |
