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To: Judy Muldawer who wrote (3833)	1/2/1999 10:30:00 AM
From: Colin Cody	Read Replies (1) of 4142

No from what you posted the fair market value has nothing to do with it. From what you posted it sounds like you should take the existing shares basis (of those you still held as of the issuance date) and average in the "free" shares, ratably for a new overall cost per share of prior shares and the new "free" shares. You were granted these free shares because, among other things, you were a shareholder of fully-paid shares previously. Is that not correct? If so, then the above likely applies! Colin

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