Tai, I'm either confusing you, or myself. Let me try it again. If you have no prior position in a stock, and you want to short it, you must wait for the inside bid to uptic. But, if you have a long position in existance already, you see a reversal coming, or is in the process, and you want to short with the bid at an imaginary $50.00 even, do I still have to wait for an uptic to 50 1/16 to short my own long position? Am I really shorting my own long position when I do such a thing? After the short position is taken, am I still responsible to get rid of my long position, or does the short position automaticlly knock out my long position?
As you can see, I'm quite ignorant about the short side of the market, and appreciate your patience, and answers. |
