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To: The Philosopher who wrote (44932)7/12/1999 10:03:00 AM
From: nihil  Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 108807
 
This is getting boring. The area under a frequency curve is finite (=1) and the arms of the curve next touch they f(x) = 0 axis (i.e. they're infinite). That is the reason that the normal curve is only a n approximation to an empirical distribution (such as a binomial). If you insist on continuing to use the bell curve inaccurately, I'll have to report you to the webmeister.