To: Berry Picker who wrote (28618 ) 12/21/1999 4:19:00 AM From: nihil Read Replies (1) | Respond to of 39621
Exactly how do you interpret the public words of David ?(2Sam. 1, 26): "I am distressed for thee, my brother Jonathan: very pleasant hast thou been to me: thy love to me was wonderful, passing the love of women." This is by definition homosexual love. The love of two persons of the same sex is homosexual (i.e. same sex). It does not necessarily mean that they engaged in sodomy or fellatio or any other particular sexual practices (although 1Sam18 looks like Jonathan and David's "covenants" was same sex marriage or at least something way beyond "blood brotherhood." Saul's assault on David might well have been an attempt to protect his son against David's seduction. Perhaps Saul's gift of Merab to David was an attempt to break up the D-J love affair. I personally find it revolting that David (and his men) collected two hundred foreskins as a dowry for Michal from the Philistines. This appears to be homosexual mutilation of the dead to me. Now frankly I am puzzled by Saul's concern about David's contamination (1Sam 20, 26) and the odd (queer?) anger at Jonathan (30) "Thou son of the perverse rebellious woman, do I not know that thou hast chosen the son of Jesse to thine own [sexual?] confusion, and unto the confusion of thy mother's nakedness?(!) and then there 41 -- "and they kissed one another, and wept one with another, until David exceeded." What does exceeded mean? One AHD meaning is "to go beyond the proper limits." It may mean David ejaculated, but the text is said to be corrupt and "exceeded" is suppressed by the editors of the Jerusalem Bible. I, of course, have no interest one way or another. I am only interested in the truth. I think David was a really rotten guy, but his being gay or straight doesn't matter to me. I think there is (weaker) evidence that Jesus was gay, but I don't think gaity is hereditary. I think it is pitiful that you and others refuse to discuss this literary problem. If I were editing Samuel and wanted to present David as a holy and orthodox Jew, I would certainly have cleaned up the text to make David look straight. Of course, I wouldn't have depicted him as an adulterer or murderer either. The fact that these definitive homosexual incidents remain suggests that the author wanted to emphasize the homosexual aspects of the relationship. It isn't really arguable, is it? If the Bible is the inerrant word of God, then David was a homosexual. QED! Yowzah!